The question I'm doing is 4 parts, but the only part I need help on is proving that the integral from -infinity to +infinity of e^(-x^2) dx = (pi)^1/2.
The previous parts we turned e^-(x^(2)+y^(2)) from a box with +/- infinity to a disk with radius a (which goes to infinity) and ranges from 0 to 2pi.
For the part I need help on, I tried the double integral of e^(-r^(2)(cos(theta))^2) but I haven't gotten the answer I'm looking for, and I can't integrate e^((cos(theta))^2). and I don't even know if I'm supposed to use a double integral for this part, but I'm pretty sure I am.
Can someone please help me?
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Verified answer
Let I = ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-x^2) dx.
So, I^2 = ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-x^2) dx * ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-y^2) dy
...........= ∫(-∞ to ∞) ∫(-∞ to ∞) e^(-x^2-y^2) dy dx.
Converting to polar coordinates yields
I^2 = ∫(θ = 0 to 2π) ∫(r = 0 to ∞) e^(-r^2) * (r dr dθ); note that there are no cosines in sight.
.....= ∫(θ = 0 to 2π) dθ ∫(r = 0 to ∞) r e^(-r^2) dr
.....= 2π * (-1/2)e^(-r^2) {for r = 0 to ∞}
.....= π.
Since I > 0, taking square roots yields I = √π.
I hope this helps!
it is not likely a double fundamental - it is one fundamental subtracted from yet another - outdoors certain minus the interior certain: first element is you're staring on the 1st quadrant, which ought to offer you the bounds of integration from 0 to ?/2. A = a million/2 ?r1^2 d? - a million/2 ?r2^2d?